I’m of the opinion that all decrees whether legislative or even religious, are inherently immoral, simply because of the power dynamics involved with THE authority, whether God vs Government. Even if a subject believes they can give consent, they can’t opt out, so the decree is effectively coercive.
With that being said, (and I don’t know the answer to this), was there a decree that gave slave owners the RIGHT to have sex with their slaves? If not, then how can we rule out that Sally Hemings gave her consent?
In 1949, the age of consent for marriage and thereby sexual intercourse for a girl was just 7 years old, in the state of Delaware! Putting that in context (and I’m not condoning it), Sally wasn’t below the age of consent if she was 16 when her and Jefferson was engaged in sexual relations.
I’m trying to understand whether your charges of rape by Jefferson, is a legal or moral one.
Thanks for your thought provoking story!